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I will email more tomorrow - he will have a loss because he is giftiing me part of his share. I don't know - maybe I need to pay him for his full share and then he can gift me back the 50k seperately. that is probably the easiest. I will message here more tomorrow
He can't take a loss on a sale to a related party. IRC 267(a)(1), 267 (b)(1), 267(c)(4)
The related-party loss-disallowance rule prevents recognition of losses for tax purposes. The rule applies to any sale or exchange of property, even bona fide sales at a fair market price.
Okay, so maybe I just pay Peter his full share and then he turns around and gifts me back the $50K?
Hello - I need some help to better understand the following scenario.
2020-12-23 Peter's Basis of the family home at the time of our mother's death = $146,667
Peter's Share of Capital Improvements: $4,589
2023-07-31 Peter's Adjusted Basis of the family home TODAY = $151,256
2023-07-31 Peter's Share of the FMV of the Home = $175,000
SCENARIO NO. 1
Peter wishes to gift me $50k of his share of the 2023-07-31 FMV of the home.
I will pay him $125,000.
- What is his basis and what is mine for tax purposes? Can you itemize the calculation and tax regs?
Peter's basis would be exactly as you stated:
$151,256 (fair market value at date of death plus Peter's share of improvements made).
Sections 1014(a)(1) and 1016(a)(1).
Your basis would be the greater of what you pay Peter ($125,000) or Peter's adjusted basis at the time of the transfer ($151,256) so, obviously it would be the latter.
Section 1.1015-4(a)(1)
Are you sure about that?
Someone else offered this as my basis:
$125,000 paid to Peter
My Basis for Peter's $50k Gift: ($50k/$175k) x $151,256 = $43,216
Yes, regarding my last question above, ris said: "Peter's basis for the share that he gifts to me Mary is (50/175) x $150K, which is $42,857, so that is Mary's basis for the share she receives as a gift from Peter."
@MeeshkaDiane wrote:
Are you sure about that?
Read the section I cited in my previous post; your (proposed) transaction is part gift/part sale.
Also, read Section 267(d)(1).
https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/26/267
As a side note, I'm thoroughly confused as to why anyone would think that a donor (Peter) would have "basis" after a completed gift. The property at that point is gone, nothing is left; the donee (transferee) would then have basis in the property that was gifted.
yes! I am having a hard time understanding this calculation. So sorry. Can you just confirm this is correct for my basis for the $50k gift? I am very sorry
Peters Basis for $50k Gift: ($50k/$175k) x $151,256 | $ 43,216 |
After the transaction, you have basis in the property that was transferred, not just the value of the "gift" itself.
So, if you paid Peter $125,000 at a time when Peter's basis was $151,256 and the FMV of Peter's share was $175,000, then you would essentially take Peter's basis ($151.256) for his share, per Section 1.1015-4.
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