3685714
I'm trying to figure out my outside cost basis and capital gain for a Limited Partner in a Real Estate Partnership.
Last year outside cost basis is $140,922
This Includes $169,685 Liabilities.
This year which is Final K1 has
Current year Increase/Decrease -$13,447
Other Increase/Decrease $42,211
Withdrawals & distributions -$1
What is my Cost basis?
What is my Sale Price?
What is my Capital Gain?
Thanks
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The liabilities provided tax basis in order for the allocation(s) to meet the substantial economic effect test, and as such, provided outside debt basis (tax basis).
You have effectively "taken the distribution" by adjusting your tax basis as noted in my original reply (basis going from a positive to a negative in bullet 2 above).
Based on the facts provided, the initial response makes sense.
My response, as noted, is based on the limited details. The response could change depending on what is flowing through other increase/decrease line. But as noted, we have no way of knowing.
With the limited details provided, this is what I see:
what are the other increases/decreases? often the preparer will insert plugs to zero out capital in the final year. this may not add to your outside tax basis. If there is no explanation with the k-1, ask the preparer because we have no way of knowing. This could be taxable income of some sort.
the current year amount should be the net loss reflected in part III
Thanks Rick for responding.
The debt relief of -$28,763 should that be added to my distribution because it exceeds my remaining outside basis?
Cost Bases = 0
Sales Price = $28,764 ($1 Distribution + $28,763 Excess Debt Relief)
Capital Gain = $28,764
This is the part of confusion for me. Please confirm
Thanks again
I used Perplexity and Gemini AI and I received 2 different answers which is also different from Ricks. This is why I am confused about debt relief when it is a Final K1. What is the correct way?
Perplexity results:
When you receive a distribution (cash or property) from a partnership, it reduces your outside basis at the time of the distribution.
When you are relieved of partnership liabilities, that also counts as a distribution (deemed cash) and reduces your outside basis.
Here’s the correct order:
Adjust your basis for all K-1 items (income, loss, contributions, etc.).
Reduce your basis by all distributions (including actual cash and deemed cash from debt relief).
If the total distributions exceed your basis, the excess is recognized as a gain.
Prior year outside basis: $140,922
Other increase/decrease: $42,211
Current year increase/decrease: $13,447
Subtotal:
$140,922 + $42,211 - $13,447 = $169,686
Cash distribution: $1
Debt relief (liabilities go to zero): $169,685
Total distributions: $1 + $169,685 = $169,686
$169,686 (basis before distributions)
$169,686 (total distributions)
= $0
If distributions do not exceed your basis, there is no gain.
If distributions exceed your basis, the excess is a gain.
In your case:
Distributions ($169,686) equal your basis ($169,686), so no gain is recognized.
You do not recognize a $1 gain.
The $1 cash distribution is already included in the total distributions that reduce your basis.
You do not subtract it twice.
Adjusted Basis (pre-distribution) | $169,686 |
Debt Relief | $169,685 |
Cash Distribution | $1 |
Total Distributions | $169,686 |
Basis After Distributions | $0 |
Capital Gain | $0 |
You do not have a capital gain.
Your total distributions (cash + debt relief) exactly equal your outside basis after all K-1 adjustments.
If you have more distributions than basis, the excess is gain. If not, there is no gain.
Gemini Results:
The liabilities provided tax basis in order for the allocation(s) to meet the substantial economic effect test, and as such, provided outside debt basis (tax basis).
You have effectively "taken the distribution" by adjusting your tax basis as noted in my original reply (basis going from a positive to a negative in bullet 2 above).
Based on the facts provided, the initial response makes sense.
My response, as noted, is based on the limited details. The response could change depending on what is flowing through other increase/decrease line. But as noted, we have no way of knowing.
Perplexity arrived at the same end result as my response.
In a forum such as this, getting overly complicated in how you arrive at the end result makes no sense, as long as the end result is correct.
Additionally, Gemini also reflects the $1 sales price noted in my response.
Ai has a long was to go to understand tax law, law in general and generates fake cases that have been submitted to Judges.
Choose wisely.
the main issue among us is whether that $42K of other increase/decrease adds to your tax basis. different preparers do things differently, so we have no way of knowing if it does or doesn't. it could represent some item of income or other item adding to tax basis or merely a plug which wouldn't to zero out the ending capital account.
Because liabilities add to outside tax basis, losses (inluding those deductible and those that are not) can actually exceed your investment, thus schedule L which is supposed to be on the tax basis can have ending negative capital. liabilities are not included in schedule L. Outside tax basis at the beginning of the year was about $ 141K with liabilities allocated of about $170K which would seem to indicate that beginning capital in schedule L was a negative $29K. Losses (or at least some items in part III are a negative $13K giving you temporarily a negative capital account of about $42K. That$42K which increases your capital account may or may not add to tax basis.
according to the k-1 other increases/decreases requires an explanation which may be on line 20 or a supplement.
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