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If you add to an existing bond position of the exact same bond issue and the new position has no interest for the year but the existing position has sufficient interest to cover the accrued interest on the new purchase can you apply it?
My knee jerk reaction would be that you have to wait until the year you get the first interest payment from that new bond purchase position. Pretty sure each purchase would have to be dealt with separately, at least for that particular purpose.
But I can't immediately point to any publication rules which deal with that specifically.
Maybe someone else has better knowledge, or a reference.
Thanks for taking a swing at it. I have the same impression but nothing clearcut from the IRS that I can find. Appreciate the input though.
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