Remaining Refinance Fees with the Same Lender

[dafins2020]

Hello Gurus,

My original investment loan #1 from 2010 was sold off to Chase bank after the 2nd month of business rental use.... I refinanced a new loan #2 (cost $4,200) with the same original lender in 2019. 

Questions:  Since the original loan was sold to Chase, can I retire the loan fees this year on loan #1 ($3156 left) OR do i need to rollup and combine the new loan #2 fees ($4,200) into loan #1 and amortize again over 30 years ($3156+4200) because it happens to be the same original lender?  

If it is the later, I should still retire the current loan fees and enter a new intangible asset for $7356 over 30 years?

Other Info:

Loan amount is the same.

Property was always a rental - never converted to personal use

[Carl]

Since the original loan was sold to Chase,

The fact the loan was sold to another lender means absolutely nothing to you. It's completely and totally irrelevant. The fact is, you are not refinancing with "the same lender" since upon it's transfer you were no longer obligated to pay Chase a penny more on the loan.

can I retire the loan fees this year on loan #1 ($3156 left)

Since loan acquisition cost are amortized (not capitalized) and deducted over time (not depreciated) the remaining balance gets deducted in the year the loan is paid off. The fact it was paid off with a refi of another loan is irrelevant.

because it happens to be the same original lender?

It's not the same lender. Period. What is "used to be" doesn't play into this.

 intangible asset for $7356 over 30 years?

To be more precise, it's an amortizable asset. (Not all intangible assets are amortized, remember.) The new loan acquisition cost amount gets deducted over the life of the loan. I presume it's a 30-year loan since that's the time frame you referred to.