Here is what I believe to be true and using very round numbers: Decades after my retirement from a company, actually just a little more than one year ago, I transferred shares of company stock held in my 401k with that company to a taxable account at a brokerage. I am now looking to sell some of that stock this year, enough to fill up a capital gains bracket (after waiting long enough to have a handle on my expected 2025 MAGIs and such). There has been no dividend reinvestment nor purchases or sales of the company stock since that date of a little more than one year ago. Using very round numbers, the cost basis was and is 100,000. The value was 600,000 when the stock was moved to a taxable account (and the rest of the 401k was rolled over to an IRA, but I digress), meaning that the 500,000 NUA would be the LTCG if I had immediately sold all the stock and it was still worth 600,000. Today the stock is worth 700,000 and so I would have another 100,000 of potential LTCG if I sold all the stock shares. I am considering selling half of the shares, which I believe would result in 700,000/2 = $350,000 of proceeds and which would have a cost basis of 100,000/2 = 50,000, both arrived at using simple proration. I believe I will have a LTCG of 350,000 – 50,000 =300,000. I believe that the portion of that LTCG (based on the NUA amount) that is exempt from NII tax is 500,000/2 = 250,000 and the remaining portion of that LTCG that is subject to NII tax is 100,000/2 = 50,000 Questions: Is my assumption that 50,000 is subject to the NIIT correct? I am aware that gain from the sales of the NUA amount are LTCG regardless of the holding period and not subject to the NIIT, is that correct? I understand that the exemption for the NIIT is claimed as follows. is it correct?:
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Thanks, hoping for some replies.
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