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May I sell MSFT from IRA account with a loss and rebuy it in the same account within 31 days since the loss can’t be claimed in the IRA account. One of your answers said the loss is ignored an therefore the stock may be purchased at any time.

I am using TurboTax Premier Desktop (Mac) and have multiple rental assets facing a California depreciation discrepancy. The Issue: I have an asset (espresso machine) purchased in 2022 for $218. In 2022, I took a full Federal Section 179 deduction. However, California (which doesn't conform to Sec 179 for this asset) began a standard depreciation schedule. CA Depreciation taken: 2022 ($39), 2023 ($62), 2024 ($62). The Problem: For every year, the California Asset Entry Worksheet shows "$0" for Prior Depreciation. Now, in 2025, the software is trying to take another $62, which would exceed the $218 cost basis. The "Prior Depreciation" field in the California column of the Asset Entry Worksheet is locked and not editable.   Solutions I've Considered: Taking the asset out of service: Manually stopping depreciation on the date where the current depreciated value is equal to the remaining basis. Modifying Federal Prior Depreciation: I noticed I can modify the Federal prior depreciation value to get it to carry over to California correctly. A turbo tax advisor (not product solutions) mentioned if the IRS inquires, I can write a letter explaining my motivation. I really don't want to cause any confusion or "hack" my Federal forms to fix a state calculation. I have multiple assets (laptops, furniture, etc.) all with this problem. I don’t want to amend any of the previous returns since if I don’t over depreciate, I don’t believe there will be a material difference.   My Question: Can anyone help me with a better solution than “hacking” the software to match up the numbers exactly? Is this a TurboTax bug where it fails to track California prior depreciation once a Federal asset is fully expensed, or am I doing something wrong?   

Background Info: I am reporting the disposition of a car that was put into service for rental property use 2 years after being purchased (Purchased in 2011 and put into service in 2013). For the part-time business use, I only ever used the Standard Mileage deduction. I traded in the car in 2025 and will not use the new car for business purposes going forward. I am using TT Premier desktop and reflected the car was no longer being used for business and date sold on Part VII, line 43 of the Car and Truck Expense Worksheet for the rental property. TT then directed me to fill out the Sale of Business Property which populates Form 4797.  I understand how to calculate everything using the percentage of business use which was very little (2.5%).    My question is solely for calculating the Cost Basis on Part I, line 2f of Form 4797. What should this cost basis be based on? The purchase price I originally paid for the car? or estimated FMV at the time the car was placed into service? (as a side note I have no records of what the FMV may have been at the time) For whoever responds, please reference the specific tax code that addresses this (specific section of publication). Thank you in advance!