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we can't see the notice and don't understand the rejection. if you qualified, you had until 4/15/2025 to establish the account and make the contribution which you did. Did the notice give a reason for the rejection, if so, what was it.? Maybe this forum can help. If not, you're going to have to contact the IRS for their reasoning,  Call 800-829-1040 1) Choose your language, 2) Then choose option 2 3) Then 1 4) Then 3 5) Then 2 6) When it asks you to enter your SSN or EIN do nothing – wait - - After it asks twice, you will get another menu 7) Then 2 😎 Then 3 It should then transfer you to an agent. Note when its phone line are busy you may be on hold for a long while or disconnected  

not completely true. I found this out with W95, Vista, XP, and W7. the computer will still continue to function just that apps that need a newer OS won't. So according to Turbotax, their desktop versions may not work without W11 but online will function https://ttlc.intuit.com/turbotax-support/en-us/help-article/download-products/end-support-windows-8-affect-turbotax-experience/L4v9atO3O_US_en_US       any by the way be glad you don't use MACs; There OS is updated more frequently making older OS unusable with Turbotax 

First of all, it's not a matter of what the IRS wants, or what would allow them to collect more tax. The IRS just follows the tax laws. It's working the way Congress designed it, for whatever reason. Secondly, the primary purpose of the RMD is to reduce the amount of money that you have in the IRA, so that you can't keep it all there forever. Taking out after-tax contributions helps to reduce the balance.  

There is never a physical signature on an e-filed return.  You "signed" electronically when you entered your AGI and/or your PIN.    If the school wants a signed copy, print out your return, use a pen and sign the return on the line next to the words "Sign here" to keep them happy.

The refund from your original tax return should be on line 18 of your Form 1040-X. Have you already filed the amended return? If not, don't file it until the IRS finishes processing your original tax return and you have received the refund. If you have already filed the amended return, you just have to wait until the IRS finishes processing the amended return and sends you a letter about the results. Then you can sort everything out and see where you stand. It could take as long as 4 months for the amended return to be processed.  

@dedudette , the withholding agent  ( the bank I assume ) , would have issued you a 1042-S showing the earned  income and the taxes withheld.  You need a Tax ID  ( SSN or ITIN ) and file a return on form 1040-NR  ( not supported by TurboTax). The other way is to ignore the US filing, pay tax on this income in Canada and claim Canadian tax credit for foreign taxes paid ( to the USA ). I am saying this without knowing the full story / antecedents of the case.   Is there more I can do for you ?

You don't get a Form 1065. Form 1065 is an income tax return filed by a partnership. The IRS gets the Form 1065 from the partnership. Do you mean that you are a partner and you did not get a "Schedule K-1 (Form 1065)" from the partnership? You have to contact the partnership or the managing partner to get your Schedule K-1. There is no other way to get the information.  

@victoriachapman70  If you look at your 1040-X  ( the summary/reconciliation  form ), it show that it is assuming that your original filed return has been processed and any refund claimed has been issued.  That is how it works.  Therefore usually it is suggested that you do not file an amended return till the original has been processed as shown on  WMR  ( Where is My Refund )  page at www.irs.gov.   Is there more I can do for you ? 

@patamelia ,  I am not sure that I understand the situation fully.   (a) Should I assume that you are a US person ( citizen/GreenCard/ Resident for Tax Purposes ) ? (b) Assume your Tax home to US (c) What is the source of the foreign currency ?  You talk about inheritance -- is that it ?  You received cash ( foreign currency ) inheritance?   Or that you received asset that you sold/ bartered for cash ?  or what ? (d) If on the other hand , if you loss is because of round-trip conversion  ( US$ to Foreign Currency  and back to US$ ), then generally this is personal loss  and not a tax event. (e) Which currency are we talking about or is multiple currencies ?   So please tell me more about the situation  and I will circle back.   pk

@riki-urata3dons  (a) as a US person working in Japan for a private or local entity, you should be eligible for  Foreign Earned Income Exclusion.  For this you need to enter your income ( gross / before taxes )  under  Personal Income tab and  Foreign Earned In come Exclusion.  This will walk you through filling out form 2555.  See details of eligibility here  -->  Foreign earned income exclusion | Internal Revenue Service (b) any un-excluded income  would be taxed by both US and Japan and therefore  is eligible for  Foreign Tax Credit under the Tax Treaty between US and Japan. (c)  Here is some information on Social Security --- you need to pay this to one country ( suggest choose based on your long-term goals i.e. where you are going to retire ) ---  Totalization Agreement with Japan | International Programs | SSA   If you need more help on this , please add to this with questions/ comments  and I will circle back.   pk

Hey you can even make a QCD Qualified Charitable Distribution with the RMD and not pay any taxes on it.  That’s what I’m doing.  I don’t turn 73 until next year but at 70 1/2 you can start making QCD.  You can donate 100,000 a year tax free.  

Thanks VolvoGirl...  What you say is what I'm learning elsewhere as well...  But I guess my question comes down to "WHY" the IRS wants us to take out an RMD in the first place...  It's my belief they compel RMD's at a certain age because they want us to pay tax on that money...  There is NO RMD requirement on say ROTH accounts and I get why, because that money has already had taxes paid when the money was first invested...  But I contend for my tax deferred (before tax) money, they are seeking TAXES and I would think they would want to say we want you to take out an amount of money for an RMD that is 100% BEFORE TAX...  You and others are telling me it's not that way and so I get it but I'm one of those types that likes to understand why...  Still seems to me that the sole purpose for RMD's is to get tax revenue into the IRS so what's in it for them if they allow me to have part of my RMD be money on which the IRS gets nothing???  Does that make sense???  I get that I'm not likely phrasing the question very well...  So I'm sort of ok with saying "OK, I've met the requirement for taking out the correct amount for my RMD"...  Check...  But I still don't get the part about why the IRS should be ok with me only having say 98% of the money be BEFORE TAX...  I mean what if it was say 50% BEFORE TAX and the other 50% AFTER TAX...  They would only get half of the tax money I believe the RMD formula was really intended to grant them...  But they're ok with that???  I get the numbers...  Just not the IRS reasoning...  Thoughts on that???  Sorry I'm being complicated but I'm just trying to understand...  My first year at RMD's...  thanks for the help...