I loaned some $ to someone whose return I am preparing (a friend so not being paid).
They are never going to be able to pay me back and they are insolvent but they do have enough basis between 2 or 3 assets for basis to be reversed to $0.
They are being depreciated as last quarter straight line. I consider the cancelation to have occurred the end of the 2nd quarter of 25.
I'm not seeing how this can be done in QB. I suppose worst case I can consider it to be the end of the year and just delete the asset and reinput in the 26 with $0 basis.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
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was the money lent to the shareholders who lent to the S-Corp, or directly to the S-Corp?
Directly to the Sub S.
from an accounting standpoint, the debt would be debited, and the basis of the assets would be credited.
Thanks for responding. I get the accounting of it. I am asking the TT of it.
I guess I can override the current year depreciation and change the basis to equal current and prior year depreciation to have $0 ending depreciable basis? I try to avoid overriding whenever possible.
I am hoping not to have to paper file.
Mike9241, thanks for responding and I apologize. I just noticed today I put QB when I meant TT.
Do you know how it should be handled in TT? TYIA.
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