1286757
In 2019 I sold some of the shares in a mutual fund. Since some shares were purchased long ago, the sale was "non-covered", i.e., I have to determine the basis myself. Which means I need to calculate the average share cost, then multiply by the number of shares sold, of course.
But...when calculating the average cost, which do I do:
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You use the cost of ALL shares owned, before you sold, divided by the total number of all shares, before you sold.
You use the cost of ALL shares owned, before you sold, divided by the total number of all shares, before you sold.
Just to be sure...you're saying I use option #1 of the two I list, right?
No,that's not what I'm saying. It's option #2 except you use the number of shares you owned BEFORE you sold any and the cost of all the shares you owned Before you sold any.
OK, I think I got it right -- please verify:
(which I think is what you originally said!)
Correct. You got it this time!
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