Thank you kindly for the reply. Unfortunately, not being a tax expert nor lawyer, much of the language is difficult to fully understand. Just using simple common-sense logic, one wonders why we have ...
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Thank you kindly for the reply. Unfortunately, not being a tax expert nor lawyer, much of the language is difficult to fully understand. Just using simple common-sense logic, one wonders why we have to pay the IRS 100% and immediately when we owe? But now that the IRS has funds my wife and I need to recover, that range from 7K to 22K, why does the IRS only permit a recovery of $100+, over 20 years? We will never see a full recovery of our money. And since we owe at year's end, why can't we apply that towards the amount we are recovering from the IRS? Where is that rule, that prevents a 100% immediate recovery, or a better rate of recovery, and for a shorter time period? And why not permit us to use that recovery sum, to apply towards our taxes owed? That just seems logical. Trying to find out if there is a way, and if not, why not? Again, much thanks. LB&SW-B