I have often wondered about this but know you can't beat IRS, but I'm taking a stab at it anyway. So, long story short. I married a gentleman with unpaid/overdue taxes. After marriage we were audited right afterwards and this is when I found out all this. But, ok we are married better or worse richer for poorer, well right off the bat, it's all the worse stuff. Long story short, we divorced after about 2 years (financials reasons go figure) but I was stuck paying my ex's unpaid/overdue tax bill because he would not report job changes and unfortunately my wages were garnished. So after the divorce was final and stated I was no longer obligated to pay the debt that was created by my ex-husband before marriage, I was informed by IRS worker they will go after the stronger partner and that I married my debt. So after that I felt like this was hopeless so just kept paying after the divorce because my ex- would not keep a job for long and would not report his taxes properly, so I just continued to pay until it was paid in full. I didn't want my wages garnished again, that was not a good feeling. But regardless of the circumstances that took place, I was wondering if there is anything small chance I could get some of my monies back especially the difference paid after the divorce was final. Just wanted to ask. It's a long shot but I know i'm not the only person with this question.
