Hello,
I have a 2-person LLP partnership.
I am using TurboTax Business for the first time. Last year we had an accountant.
The way we distribute money to the partners (profit that we pay personal taxes on with K-1), is that after each job, we split the profit.
I looked at last years K-1 form and I can see that the accountant registered these distributions as guaranteed payments.
Now I am filling out the Turbotax form for this year and it says that guaranteed payments are "Guaranteed payments are payments made to partners that are not based on the partner's share of the business's income."
Well these distributions ARE based on our share of business income. our share is 50-50 and at the end of every job we split the profit 50-50.
so was my accountant incorrect to label these as guaranteed payments?
and if so, what should they be labeled as instead?
It looks like in Turbotax that once I input them as guaranteed payments, the profit for the business goes down (becomes negative for the year). but this is profit that we split 50-50.
if anyone has advice on this I'd appreciate it.
thanks
gary in vermont
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I agree that based on your facts, the payments are NOT guaranteed payments; for exactly the reason stated by TT.
Having said that, the end result should be the same.
I would just record all income and expense and then split it 50/50 as you indicate that is how it should be handled. Then the program will allocated everything 50/50 onto the K-1 box 1.
Guaranteed payments are reflected as an expense on page 1 of the 1065 and then reported on the respective partner's K-1. This is then reported as SE income along with anything else in box 1 (less any applicable deductions that are separately stated). So as you can see, in the end, it all works out the same.
The piece I believe you are missing, is the netting process that happens on the K-1. Your box 1 and box 4 get netted for purposes of your 1040 for both income tax and SE Tax purposes.
The payments to each partner then become a distribution reported on the K-1 line 19 code A
A quick example:
$100,000 in income and $40,000 in business expenses
Scenario 1
Show the $100,000 as guaranteed payments 50/50. $50,000 each. Page 1 of the 1065 will show $40,000 as the net loss (because the two $100,000 amounts offset). Each K-1 will show the $50,000 in guaranteed payment in box 4 and a $20,000 loss in box 1. This nets to $30,000 each.
Scenario 2
No guaranteed payment. Page 1 of the 1065 shows net income of $60,000 which is then split 50/50. Each K-1 box 1 shows $30,000 income. This is the same result as scenario 1.
Having said that, once again, I don't believe you have any guaranteed payments.
I agree that based on your facts, the payments are NOT guaranteed payments; for exactly the reason stated by TT.
Having said that, the end result should be the same.
I would just record all income and expense and then split it 50/50 as you indicate that is how it should be handled. Then the program will allocated everything 50/50 onto the K-1 box 1.
Guaranteed payments are reflected as an expense on page 1 of the 1065 and then reported on the respective partner's K-1. This is then reported as SE income along with anything else in box 1 (less any applicable deductions that are separately stated). So as you can see, in the end, it all works out the same.
The piece I believe you are missing, is the netting process that happens on the K-1. Your box 1 and box 4 get netted for purposes of your 1040 for both income tax and SE Tax purposes.
The payments to each partner then become a distribution reported on the K-1 line 19 code A
A quick example:
$100,000 in income and $40,000 in business expenses
Scenario 1
Show the $100,000 as guaranteed payments 50/50. $50,000 each. Page 1 of the 1065 will show $40,000 as the net loss (because the two $100,000 amounts offset). Each K-1 will show the $50,000 in guaranteed payment in box 4 and a $20,000 loss in box 1. This nets to $30,000 each.
Scenario 2
No guaranteed payment. Page 1 of the 1065 shows net income of $60,000 which is then split 50/50. Each K-1 box 1 shows $30,000 income. This is the same result as scenario 1.
Having said that, once again, I don't believe you have any guaranteed payments.
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