Is there a functional difference between the tax on the following two trades:
1. Buy 1000 shares at $28 ($28000); Sell 1000 shares at $29 ($29000); proceeds $1000.
2. Buy 1000 shares at $2.8 ($2800); Sell 1000 shares at $3.8 ($3800); proceeds $1000.
I want to make sure that example 1 does not carry more tax burden due to higher cost basis. In this example, the trader is using a commission-free brokerage. Is there any way example 1 would cost the trader more if he/she isn't borrowing any $?
Thank you!