My father does not use checks. He gifted me the $18,000 annual exclusion through this process... He transferred the funds from his individual account to our joint account. I then transferred it from our joint account to my personal account. Please confirm it it OK to have done it that way.
That said, the bigger question is this.. Can he make a gift to my wife through a similar process, but that still involves me? (From his personal account, transfer to my father and I's joint account, and then I transfer it from there to an account I own jointly with my wife) Or could this somehow be counted as a double git to me?