You'll need to sign in or create an account to connect with an expert.
Thanks for this! Is the "date of conversion" more arbitrary, meaning, we decided we were going to rent out property eventually back in Oct. 2022, but slowly were making improvements to it after that date. We still used the property but each visit we accomplished more to make it renter worthy. Just wondering how this is defined..
The date placed in service is the date you would use when the property is ready and available for rent. The purchase date should also be entered when asked so that when and if you sell in the future TurboTax does know the correct holding period.
The capital improvements will become part of the purchase price when you do place it in service, as well as purchase expenses.
If you used the property for personal purposes before you converted it to a rental property, then you must compare the fair market value (FMV) to the actual cost. The lower of the two would be considered the cost and depreciable basis. If you never used the property for personal use, then the cost can be used once it is available for rent.
[Edited: 03/23/2024 | 6:42 AM PST]
The date placed in service is the date you would use for the purchase date.
You might want to check that. It's no problem for the purchase date to be years before the in service date. The program asks for both dates separately. Do note that nowhere on any of the 4562's do I see a separation of those two dates either. Kinda makes one wonder why it even asks for the acquisition/purchase date. 🙂 Maybe it's somewhere else on the tax return I'm not aware of? Don't know off hand.
Still have questions?
Make a postAsk questions and learn more about your taxes and finances.
SelenaP
Returning Member
heimer_c
New Member
jraybe1
Level 1
RaineB
Level 2
thehimels
New Member
Did the information on this page answer your question?
You have clicked a link to a site outside of the TurboTax Community. By clicking "Continue", you will leave the Community and be taken to that site instead.