Form 1116

Forum|Forum|3 months ago
March 24, 2026
1 reply
21 views

In my situation, I have $228 of investment expense in Box 4B1A. This is US-based investment expense from my K1s. In 2024, this was marked as US based and I didn't have to fill out the additional boxes below. This is no longer marked this way or at all. Should this value even be in the noted box since it doesn't apply to foreign tax calculations?? This US-base investment income is what is driving the need for Boxes4B1B and 4B1C ro be populated by me.

pk_

Level 15

@dzimmer10 what is your total gross foreign source income from all foreign sources ?

If the total gross foreign source from all form 1116 is greater than US$5000, then the deductible investment expenses ( from Schedule-A) , will be allocated between all sources of income ( world and the different foreign sources). What the form is trying to do is compute the taxable income from each of the sources and thereby compute a ratio for allocation of computed total tax between sources.

Does this make sense ?

dzimmer10Author

Level 2

My total amount of foreign income is $5300 so above the $5K you mentioned. However, all the investment income expense comes from US investments. Why would it need to calculate how much is allocated to foreign versus US investments in this case? Or am I missing your point?

DaveF1006

Level 15

If your foreign income is over the de minimis threshold ($300/$600, or the $5,000 gross limit you mentioned), you are required to "apportion" expenses. The formula generally looks like this.

Expense allocated to foreign source = total expenses X (Gross foreign gross income/ total Gross income).
The investment income is calculated and reported as a total in the total gross income. Total gross income is ALL INCOME reported and used in the calculation of the foreign tax credit as well as the apportioned expense.

@dzimmer10