In 2019 I sold some of the shares in a mutual fund. Since some shares were purchased long ago, the sale was "non-covered", i.e., I have to determine the basis myself. Which means I need to calculate the average share cost, then multiply by the number of shares sold, of course.
But...when calculating the average cost, which do I do:
You use the cost of ALL shares owned, before you sold, divided by the total number of all shares, before you sold.
Just to be sure...you're saying I use option #1 of the two I list, right?
No,that's not what I'm saying. It's option #2 except you use the number of shares you owned BEFORE you sold any and the cost of all the shares you owned Before you sold any.
OK, I think I got it right -- please verify:
(which I think is what you originally said!)