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ThomasM125: " I could find no stipulation that you would have to take a RMD equal to the RMD of the deceased in any year after the year of death: Pub 590"

Thank you for this.  I wish I could find definitive language or an IRS created example to support my case, but that may be a futile search.  Assuming you/I are correct, it boggles my mind that a major brokerage could have this scenario wrong; giving bogus info to not just me, but , what , thousands of other clients?