Yes. It was no longer your main home. I am assuming you rented in Texas.
The exact wording from the IRS is:
First-time homebuyer. Generally, you are a first-time homebuyer if you had no present interest in a main home during the 2-year period ending on the date of acquisition of the home which the distribution is being used to buy, build, or rebuild. If you are married, your spouse must also meet this no-ownership requirement.
