I just spoke to a knowledgeable person from the insurance company. He told me that once the contract value is zero, the contract gets annuitized and I continue to receive the same distribution that the income rider provides, however, that future distribution cannot be used for the RMD of my other IRA's.
He also told me that the they calculate the actuarial value of the income rider when doing the RMD calculation, however, they use the higher of the contract value or the actuarial value of the income rider in the RMD calculation.
Does this make sense? Thanks again for your help.
