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Retirement tax questions
No. It is not double taxation. Your after-tax contribution went into the IRA and became basis.
Your distribution consisted pf both before tax money and after-tax money in the ratio as explained. You pay tax on the before tax amount of the distributions - the part of after-tax basis is not taxed.
Every distribution in the future will be the same - both taxable and non-taxable.
No. That it the fallacy of so called "Backdoor Roth". IRA basis is always prorated over the total value of the IRA. The total basis can only be applied if all IRA's are distributed and closed so the total year end value is zero.
Your distribution consisted pf both before tax money and after-tax money in the ratio as explained. You pay tax on the before tax amount of the distributions - the part of after-tax basis is not taxed.
Every distribution in the future will be the same - both taxable and non-taxable.
No. That it the fallacy of so called "Backdoor Roth". IRA basis is always prorated over the total value of the IRA. The total basis can only be applied if all IRA's are distributed and closed so the total year end value is zero.
**Disclaimer: This post is for discussion purposes only and is NOT tax advice. The author takes no responsibility for the accuracy of any information in this post.**
‎June 4, 2019
6:46 PM