Hi. I'm seeing very conflicting information online about the legality of setting up multiple IRAs with pre-tax and after-tax dollars in them to avoid the pro-rata rule. Doesn't the rule require that all IRAs, even if they are in different accounts and possibly with different providers, be included in the pro-rata calculation for determining taxability of backdoor Roth conversions? A financial advisor (CFP) is recommending that having pre-tax and after-tax IRAs (separate accounts) allows one to ONLY convert the after-tax amounts without having to do a pro-rata calculation
