See czhang4 above
What you did appears to be correct, except for one error. Sorry to have missed your question last year!
From TD Am: "The cost basis allocation factor is the value of the assets sold divided by the total net asset
value of the trust. If you know your cost of the assets sold, use that to determine your gain/loss. Otherwise, determine your cost basis by multiplying your adjusted cost basis by the cost basis
allocation factor. For example, if your adjusted basis is $1,000 and the cost basis allocation factor is 0.005 your cost basis allocated to that sale is $1,000 * 0.005 or $5. If there are subsequent
sales of trust assets, your adjusted cost basis for the next sale is $995."
I don't believe you reduced your cost basis by the first sale BEFORE applying the next cost basis factor. Each one of those CBFs applies only to the adjusted cost basis FOLLOWING the prior reduction in cost basis. You can't just keep using your original cost basis. You have to step it down month by month to use their system.
It gets more complicated if you have long term vs. short term gains as I've covered, but your situation is pretty simple. You pay for the metal sales as cap gains/losses and you adjust your cost basis down by the COST BASIS calculation for those gold sales NOT by the proceeds amounts.
The above is IMO...consult an accountant if needed! 😉
