Yes, assuming you are reversing the order in which the transactions occurred. In other words, the buy to close is entered first as if it was the opening transaction (even though it was the closing transaction and thus occurred later in time than the sell to open). And the sell to open is entered as the second transaction (even though it happened first because it was the opening transaction).
@nirlay
**Say "Thanks" by clicking the thumb icon in a post
**Mark the post that answers your question by clicking on "Mark as Best Answer"
