Yeah, I was trying to be really specific so as to avoid any weird rules that would take away from the question I was asking, so yes, I'm assuming that nothing age-related comes into play.
So I think you answered my question -- even though I have a single account, the different contribution %s are maintained on the back end, and repaying the loan to my account will be done based on the proportion of the account that the loan was drawn from (i.e., if my account happens to be 50% Roth, 50% pre-tax when I take the loan, it'll get repaid 50% to Roth and 50% to pre-tax, as if I had taken two separate loans from two separate accounts even though I have just one account on the front end). I assume this means that taking a loan out on after-tax (not Roth, but specifically after-tax) amounts would be repaid to the after-tax bucket, which would then be able to be rolled into a Roth IRA since after-tax amounts may be rolled there, which is what I wanted to confirm with my original question.
Or, to illustrate, I could have $25,000 pre-tax, $25,000 Roth, and $50,000 after-tax in a 401k ($100,000 in total), I could take a $50k loan from my single 401k account, and repayments would be distributed proportionately to pre-tax (25%), Roth (25%), and after-tax (50%) amounts. If at the end of this procedure, with no additional contributions and no additional earnings, I have $110,000 (because of the $10,000 in interest I paid on my loan), then 25% of that would be pre-tax ($27,500), 25% would be Roth ($27,500), and 50% would be after-tax ($55,000). I could take my Roth and after-tax amounts ($82,500) and roll them into my Roth IRA. I could also take my pre-tax amount ($27,500) and roll that into my Traditional IRA.
Is anything I said in the preceding paragraph not allowed or wrong?
