Hi there. This doesn’t make sense (I know it’s the irs rules here) because if I roll over all my after tax contributions to a Roth and leave my traditional ira alone which encompasses all my pre-tax contributions (all my work 401k plans have been rolled over to this ira), aren’t we saying the same thing of what the final outcome will be? My broker said they can create a Roth account and they would transfer my after tax contributions to my his new account, and they would create a 1099-r indicating how much they would move to the Roth account and I would state the basis is the same amount that was transferred so there would be no tax.
I have also read that another way to take these after tax monies out is to take the % of what the after tax contributions are to your pretax amounts and that % will not be taxed on future withdrawals. I just don’t want to wait 10 years not do I have an employer. Thanks
