I want to thank you for that explanation but admit I still find that an odd technicality and cannot understand the difference. This problem is probably not understood by thousands of people. Clearly not specifying that a Roth is not allowed, why then does the IRS have the right to declare whether I put the money in the bank or do something else with it like convert to a Roth? Do you actually mean it is not my business to do what I want with the distribution? I thought it was my money, and could convert it if I wanted. I absolutely do not wish to break the law. But I find it so difficult that this matter is not addressed in a more direct answer, such as specifying clearly that a Roth conversion is not allowed, in plain English for everyone to understand and then comply with the rules. Thanks for your reply.
