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Retirement tax questions
Yes, the distribution from the Roth 401(k) could be rolled over to a Roth IRA, then the Roth IRA ordering rules would apply to distributions from the Roth IRA. The part of the distribution from the Roth 401(k) that was attributable to contribution basis becomes contribution basis in the Roth IRA.
As an alternative, it should be possible to take an amount from the Roth 401(k) such that the portion of the distribution consisting of contribution basis is enough to satisfy the cash needs, then rolling the remainder, the taxable earnings portion, over to a Roth IRA (or perhaps even back into the Roth 401(k)). § 402(c)(2) deems the rollover to come first from the taxable portion of the distribution from the 401(k) (in this case the Roth account in the 401(k)). I haven't seen any explicit IRS guidance regarding this approach, particularly with regard to a CRD, but it seems that Form 8915-E will handle the repayment in this way by treating the repayment as being first a repayment of the taxable portion. Assuming that this alternative is viable, which it appears to be, this alternative would be preferable to first rolling everything over to a Roth IRA.
The limitation on either approach is that if the taxable portion is rolled over to make the rest of the distribution entirely nontaxable, some portion of a maximum $100k CRD would have to be rolled over, resulting in less available for spending.