Still not fully clear - wash sale. I've 2 accounts, A and B, stocks. All stock purchases described below are in the same year. I buy some shares of LW in account Bon May 15, then sell some days later for a loss. My reading on wash sales says the "trigger" for a potential wash sale begins only with a sale at a loss.
Now, it turns out, I had bought some shares of LW also in account A on May 1. Consider 2 possibilities for these LW shares in account A: 1. I hold indefinitely; 2. I may sell if the price takes me to a profit.
Am I correct in assuming account A can never have anything to do with the "triggering" mechanism in account B, since the "triggering" came later? Therefore, I can just disregard anything in account A having to do with this potential wash sale example?
