I am considering selling a 50% interest in my primary residence to an investor and converting it to a rental property. In this case, my original purchase price of the home and the investor’s purchase price of their share of the home would be different from each other. Would my depreciation basis be 50% of the original purchase price and my investor’s depreciation basis be 100% of the cost of their purchase price of the 50% share of the house?
thank you in advance!
