JohnB5677
Expert Alumni

Investors & landlords

Basically, the entire transaction is a zero-sum event in which the total cost basis of all the shares owned after the spin-off equals your total cost basis in the shares owned before the spin-off.

 

The value per share of the spin-off is $14.91/0.500=$29.82.  This is not the basis.

You must get the value of the original stock at the time just before the spin-off.  I will use the example of $100.

$100 - $29.82 = $70.18.  This is the current adjusted value of the original stock.

 

You must have the basis of the original stock.  Example $35.

Calculate the percentage change:  $35/$100 = 0.35 (35%)

Basis of spin-off = 0.35 X $29.82 = $10.44

Since you sold 0.50 shares you would post $10.44 X 0.50 = $5.22 to the basis of the spin-off shares sold.

 

**Say "Thanks" by clicking the thumb icon in a post
**Mark the post that answers your question by clicking on "Mark as Best Answer"

View solution in original post