The IRS considers these amortizable intangibles and accounting rules dictate that those are to be depreciated instead of deducted as an expense.
Can you clarify that? An amortized intangible is "deducted" over time - not depreciated. At least for financing and other fees associated with acquisition of the loan on rental property. Then when you sell, any remaining fees not yet deducted are fully deductible in the year of the sale.
Or are we saying the same thing in different ways?
