Something's not right here. It appears that the others are not understanding your initial post the same way I do.
For the first ten years, we rented the top floor, 50% of the house and depreciated at that level.
So from 1995 through 2004 (ten years) you rented 50% of the house and depreciated accordingly with depreciation starting a some time in 1995.
We then renovated and for the past 16 years have rented 28% of the house and depreciated that percentage.
Would help to know exactly what those renovations were. But working with what we have here, after renovations were complete around 2004 or 2005, you added another asset (your renovations) and only rented 28% "of that asset" with depreciation starting in 2005 "for that specific asset".
Depreciation for the initial 50% is for 27.5 years and does not end until 2021 or 2022, depending on what month the asset was originally placed in service in 1995. Under no circumstances and with no exceptions will that "ever" change for any reason for so long as you own the property. There are no exceptions.
Depreciation on 28% of the renovation started in 2004 or 2005 and depreciation on that asset does not end until 2031 or 2032, depending on exactly when the asset was placed in service.
Now, if you renovated the rental portion of the property that is 100% exclusive to the renter, then the rental use percentage of that would not be 28%. It would be 100% "if" what you renovated was for the exclusive use of the renter.
If what you renovated was for your "personal use" portion only, and that added to the overall cost basis of the entire property, (and it would of course) then you could enter that as another asset with an in service date of 2004/2005 (whenever the work was completed) and then depreciated 50% of that starting in 2004/2005.
That would be the correct way to have done things and is one way that your initial post "could" be interpreted and understood.
