I am still preoccupied with these purported "court decisions" that specify some sort of time constraint.
I've looked for something pertaining to that off and on for the last 2-3 days now and also find nothing.
I think what they may be alluding to is this:
If the closing date on the sale is in fact, more than three years after the property was no longer your primary residence, then there's no way to meet the base requirement of it being your primary residence for 2 of the last 5 years you owned it, counting back from the date of the sale.
