Investors & landlords

Thanks Carl - totally understand.  Needs to be fixed.  I was playing around in TT though with the old and new asset of each being 50% of basis (original and new FMV), 50% land, and 50% of full amount of depreciation for original asset (to match it being fully depreciated of the new 50% basis amount), and when you go to enter a sale it does calculate the new asset/basis's depreciation that we should have taken for recapture purposes on the new asset for the shorter period of time.  So while we didn't take it in the past 2 years, it will still be taxed as if we did.  If you put in 50% of all the values and then put in 50% of the sale price for each, I wonder if the math works out correctly.  Likely not, but was worth a shot in messing with the software to see.  Logically, it would seem to make sense because the original asset was fully depreciated, so nothing you put in will change the fact that there is nothing left to depreciate.

 

Just some thoughts... appreciate the help.