Thank you I think that helps clear some things up. So if i understand correctly there is no special handling because the asset was only used as a rental from the time it was converted to a rental till it was sold. And thus when entering the sales information for asset and land prices, the business portion referenced would be 100% of the sales price correct (since the asset was a strictly business purpose at time of sale)? Thanks so much for your help this was complicated for me!
