Thanks for the clarification, I think I understand the part about buying something identical after the sale within 30 days. But I am confused about the part where it also says the wash sale occurs up to 30 days before the sale.
"The rule defines a wash sale as one that occurs when an individual sells or trades a security at a loss and, within 30 days before or after this sale, buys a "substantially identical" stock or security, or acquires a contract or option to do so."
In my example 2, If I sold some of my shares before the 30 days, doesn't the before clause trigger since there was 2 separate buys of the same stock?
