I do not have any capital gains income. But I do have CA sourced income from my employer that is unrelated to these capital gain losses.
Okay, so since I was in California for 1/3 of the time that I was making these trades, I should attribute 1/3 of the $5000 losses to being "Received from CA Source as if Nonresident for Full Year"?
Is that correct?
I was not taxed on these losses yet, is that what TT is asking? Whether I already got a tax break for these losses?
