Thanks for the quick response! Apparently there have been all sorts of questions and court things going on several years back with the IRS saying "0" basis for the folks who originally were given the shares when Metlife demutualized, but I didn't think any of that applied since I inherited the shares. Everything I read seemed to imply the basis would be the fair market value at the point of inheritance. For me, since the stock is worth less than when I inherited it, it's the difference between owing a boat load of taxes (if the basis were "0") or taking a small loss.
Thanks again.
