Thanks a lot! Just to sum it up to make sure I understand correctly. I can put on amortization the most recent refi even though it took place in a year prior to converting to rental. However, I cannot do the same with prior refies? And I won't be able to deduct those unamortized costs of earlier refies during the sale of property either. Did I got it correctly? Does the fact that all those refies were with the same lender change anything?
