I am in the same situation. I owned my own house and my husband owned his own house prior to us getting married. We both qualify for the 2 year of the past five in our own homes. We are wanting to buy one home together. My house is up for sale and currently under contract. We probably won't be selling his until next year (being we are already almost at November). Would I be able to get the exclusion and he get his on his sale of house next year? Instead of doing the 500 for married? Neither properties would have gains near the 250 mark in either case. PLEASE let me know asap.
