What if you sell at a wash loss sale of 100 dollars and then do not repurchase shares until 200 days later? Can the wash loss sale disallowed be added to the cost basis of the stock purchased 200 days later?
If a wash loss sale is triggered by another sale, then there is no purchase to have the wash sale loss disallowed to be added to the cost basis of. So, the wash loss sale amount should be added to the next purchase of the stock, am I wrong? And is it okay if the next purchase is 200 days later?
