Thank you! Let’s assume I were to simply accept to overpay taxes here. Wouldn’t that ‘arbitrary’ closing expense be a problem because I can’t back it up? Or would that be acceptable because it is only a portion of what I could have included in the cost base - effectively you could say I elected to only partially take the fees into account.
I know it sounds stupid; where I’m getting at is that I’m uncertain whether everything would indeed be fine if I were to do nothing a as you seem to suggest.
Thank you for clarification!
