Thanks for the reply Rick, but I still need this clarified further. Forgive me if I did not make this facet clear, but the reason I refer to it as 100% of the SE tax is because I (the Managing Member) am keeping or receiving all (100%) of said ordinary (SE taxable) income. So why wouldn't I be subject to all the income being taxed for SE? (unless the amount was over the SE threshold which is not the case here) Please elaborate further.
