I purchased a house the seller gave a concession on the price calling it for "real estate taxes": Looking at IRS publication 520: "The buyer is treated as paying real estate taxes beginning with the date of sale.. "You and the seller are considered to have paid your own share of the taxes, even if one or the other paid the entire amount". So: Does that not mean that I (the buyer) can deduct all real estate taxes applied to the home that cover it on and after the selling date- in spite of the concession? Is not the concession merely a price reduction?
