My question is very simple. When the property was put in service as a rental, it included some appliances that had been there for a few years. As I have stated, I have NO RECEIPTS for these appliances, no purchase records.
My question is: Is there some way of getting a depreciation deduction for property whose existence I can easily document, but for which I have no record of a purchase? Does the IRS have any guidance for such a situation?
Are we clear now on my question? The answer starts with "Yes" or "No" and then goes on to give an explanation, perhaps citing law, regulation, IRS guidance, or common practice.
