My wife owned this house over 20 years, and I purchased a new home within the last 4 year. We decided to market the house and sold it. My question is because she had owned the home before we got married and it was solely under her maiden name, and she had never sold a home before, would she be entitled to a first-time forgiveness.
If memory serves me right, that is something which you could do depending on the gains of the sale.
