I’ve read the rules & tests for calculating the required 2/5 years, but I may be a gray zone.
2015:
Living FL. My parents become ill, so I sell my FL home and buy a home to be near them in TX, but I did not change FL domicile elements like voting, driver's license, car insurance, Fed tax, PObox.
2016-present:
I had no job, bank account, home or apt in FL and did not set foot in the state.
I work from and live full-time in the only home I own, in TX.
My private med insurance, Medicare & SS address is my TX home. My doctors are in TX.
2024:
I finally get around to formally changing domicile from FL to TX on Jan 1st, 2024.
2025:
I am considering selling my TX home this year. Disregarding any other implications, do I meet the Fed test of living in my home for 2 of the last 5 years? Is it correct that you can include the time you lived in a home before changing your domicile as long as you meet the ownership and use requirements, which I clearly do?
