@Anonymous_ - right.... the buyer is not the tenant of the unit being sold, I agree with that.
But it appears the tenant under discussion is the seller's tenant. The buyer wants the tenant out so the buyer can obtain owner-occupied financing. That is my interpretation of the OPs statement.
the "HE" is the buyer and the "that" is the property that is being traded.
<<He plans to move in that unit after close of escrow so that he can apply for owner-occupied loan.>>
If true, then the question for the lawyer / closing agent: as the seller am I taking on any risk by shading the truth on the reason for the seller credit?
