One additional thing I actually want to clarify: I am NOT the landlord of the property and the $1125 that I’m “charging” for the in-law is NOT money that is going into my pocket (not rental income). The $1125 still goes to the landlord and I am just the middle person that sends the single rent payment for the entire property. In other words, I get the $1125 from the in-law but then I send that to the landlord in addition to the balance of the total rent (my portion). With that said, would that negate the idea of double-dipping?
